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Why should the government recieve fines levied by the courts?

For example, the victims of Madoff got but a pittance of their money back, but the court levied huge fines against Madoff, ensuring Mddoff would never be completely free until the fines were paid. Whatassurances do the victims have? Same in the Enron debacle.

I doubt the fines, even if eventually collected, will be enough to cover the costs of investigation, prosecution and incarceration. So it’s not like the government "made" money off the deal.

This entry was posted on Tuesday, June 1st, 2010 at 2:55 am and is filed under fines. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed. You can leave a response, or trackback from your own site.

One Response to “Why should the government recieve fines levied by the courts?”

  1. Tom V Says:
    June 1st, 2010 at 8:29 am

    I doubt the fines, even if eventually collected, will be enough to cover the costs of investigation, prosecution and incarceration. So it’s not like the government "made" money off the deal.
    References :

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